Do the male pronouns indicate that the Bible is written to men first and women second?
I noticed something in the Bible scripture I quoted on the back cover of the book I wrote.
John 4:13-15
New King James Version
13 Jesus answered and said to her, “Whoever drinks of this water will thirst again, 14 but whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will never thirst. But the water that I shall give him will become in him a fountain of water springing up into everlasting life.”
15 The woman said to Him, “Sir, give me this water, that I may not thirst, nor come here to draw.”
JESUS Christ is talking to a woman here and offering 'her' Living Water. He is ministering to her, but He is using male pronouns in His delivery/explanation to her.
I do believe that husbands are called to leadership in relationships with their wives, whom they love and protect in the name of JESUS Christ. I think that through JESUS, women can find *more liberty in the world this way! GOD is love, and love sets us free!
I do believe that the Bible scriptures above are evidence that a Christian's discernment could lead them to the conclusion that the male pronouns of the Bible don't in anyway exclude women from the conversation.
In addition to husbandry, I wonder if the male pronouns are describing the world as James Brown did in one of his songs? "This is a man's world. But it wouldn't be nothing, without a woman or a girl."
There is further evidence in the book of Proverbs where GOD's wisdom is given a feminine pronoun.
Proverbs 3:18-20 (New Living Translation)
18 Wisdom is a tree of life to those who embrace her; happy are those who hold her tightly.
19 By wisdom the Lord founded the earth; by understanding he created the heavens. 20 By his knowledge the deep fountains of the earth burst forth, and the dew settles beneath the night sky.
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